Microsoft MB-700 Exam Questions

MB-700 exam is a new Microsoft exam related to Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect Expert certification.The Microsoft MB-700 Exam Questions of PassQuestion can not only help you pass Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect exam successfully and consolidate your professional knowledge, but also provide you one year free update service.

MB-700 Exam Overview - Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect (beta)

The new Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect Expert certification has one exam that is currently in beta: MB-700: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Solution Architect. You must also have either the Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Developer Associate or any Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Functional Consultant Associate certification.

Solution Architects for Finance and Operations apps in Microsoft Dynamics 365 are trusted advisors who consult with organizations and implementation team members to refine business needs into a well-defined and cost-effective solution.

Microsoft MB-700 Exam Skills Measured

Identify solution requirements (30-35%)
Design solution components (40-45%)
Define solution testing and management strategies (25-30%)

Prerequisites:

Complete one of the following certifications:
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Finance Functional Consultant Associate(MB-300 MB-310)
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing Functional Consultant Associate(MB-300 MB-320)
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management Functional Consultant Associate(MB-300 MB-330)
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Developer Associate(MB-300 MB-500)

View MB-700 Free Questions From PassQuestion Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB-700 Real Questions

1.A company uses a legacy finance application that runs on a single SQL Server instance. The company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Finance. 
The following table describes the current implementation and design decisions for the new implementation:

You need to identify the gap in the migration plan.
Which requirement should you identify as a gap?
A. Business logic
B. Users
C. User Interface
D. Reports
E. Data
Answer: B

2.A company use Dynamics 365 Business Central.
The company identifies the following issues:
- Users report they cannot perform planning and dispatching of service orders or track bills of material in the system.
- The finance department says that licensing costs are higher than budgeted.
You need to recommend a solution to address the issues.
What should you recommend?
A. Use the Lifecycle Services business process modeler to create service order management and manufacturing tasks in the BPM Library.
B. Perform a fit-gap analysis. Implement service order management and manufacturing business processes and license changes.
C. Configure all users as Business Central Premium users.
D. Ensure that the service order management and manufacturing processes steps are documented in a flow chart.
E. Configure all users as Business Central Essentials users.
Answer: B

3.A holding company with three independently managed and operated subsidiaries is implementing Dynamics 365 Finance.
The company needs to ensure the restriction of data for each company from subsidiary counterparts.
You need to determine an organization structure.
Which structure should you recommend?
A. single legal entity with security policies
B. separate legal entities
C. single legal entity with custom business unit financial dimension
D. single entity that consolidates legal entities
E. single legal entity with default business unit financial dimension
Answer: B

4.A company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Finance + Operations (on-premises). The company has system compliance requirements that must be addressed. You need to design the solution for the company.
What should you address in the design?
A. employee retirement
B. data privacy
C. fair labor standards
D. equal employment opportunity
Answer: B

5.An organization is implementing Dynamics 365 Finance.
The organization uses financial reports including detailed balance information in local currencies for all accounts. Reports must include general ledger account number and journal entry line description. You need to recommend a report that meets the requirements.
Which report should you recommend?
A. Audit Details
B. Summary Trial Balance
C. Balance Sheet
D. Cash Flow 
Answer: A

6.A trading company is concerned about the impact of General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) on their business. The company needs to define personal data for their business purposes.
You need to define personal data as defined by GDPR.
Which three types of data are considered personal data? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. password
B. Social Security number
C. a portion of the address (region, street, postcode etc.)
D. International article (EAN) number
E. MAC address
Answer: ABC

Oracle Autonomous Database 1Z0-931 Questions

1Z0-931 Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist exam is a hot Oracle Certification test. PassQuestion provides Oracle Autonomous Database 1Z0-931 Dumps to help you validate the knowledge and skills to pass Oracle 1Z0-931 exam. You will be well prepared for Oracle 1Z0-931 exam and then successfully pass the 1Z0-931 Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist exam.

1Z0-931 Exam Overview - Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist

Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud Specialist is a must have certificates for any IT professional working with any cloud technologies.An Oracle Autonomous Database 2019 Specialist has demonstrated the knowledge required to provision, manage, and migrate to Autonomous Transaction Database (ATP) and Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW).  It is designed for database administrators, monitors, and Dev Ops admins who want to validate their knowledge and skills. 
 
Individuals who earn this certification are able to understand the features and workflows of  Autonomous Database; provisioning and connecting, migration using SQL Developer, Data Pump and Golden Gate, manage and monitor, and understand tools, reporting and analytics using Autonomous Data Warehouse. 

1Z0-931 Exam Topics Covered In Oracle Autonomous Database Cloud 2019 Specialist

Autonomous Database Technical Overview
Migration and Data Loading into Autonomous Database
Monitoring Autonomous Database
Provisioning and Connectivity
Managing and Maintaining Autonomous Database
Tools, Reporting and Analytics using Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)

View Oracle Autonomous Database 1Z0-931 Free Questions

1.What are two advantages of using Data Pump to migrate your Oracle Databases to Autonomous Database? (Choose two.)
A. Data Pump can exclude migration of objects like indexes and materialized views that are not needed by Autonomous Database.
B. Data Pump is platform independent - it can migrate Oracle Databases running on any platform.
C. Data Pump is faster to migrate database than using RMAN.
D. Data Pump creates the tablespaces used by your Autonomous Database.
Answer: AC

2.The default eight-day retention period for Autonomous Database performance data can be modified using which DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY subprogram procedure?
A. UPDATE_OBJECT_INFO
B. MODIFY_SNAPSHOT_SETTINGS
C. CREATE_BASELINE_TEMPLATE
D. MODIFY_BASELINE_WINDOW_SIZE
Answer: B

3.Which task is NOT automatically performed by the Oracle Autonomous Database?
A. Backing up the database.
B. Mask your sensitive data.
C. Patching the database.
D. Automatically optimize the workload.
Answer: B

4.Which three statements are true about procedures in the DBMS_CLOUD package? (Choose three.)
A. The DBMS_CLOUD.PUT_OBJECT procedure copies a file from Cloud Object Storage to the Autonomous Data Warehouse.
B. The DBMS_CLOUD.CREATE_CREDENTIAL procedure stores Cloud Object Storage credentials in the Autonomous Data Warehouse database.
C. The DBMS_CLOUD.VALIDATE_EXTERNAL_TABLE procedure validates the source files for an external table, generates log information, and stores the rows that do not match the format options specified for the external table in a badfile table on Autonomous Data Warehouse.
D. The DBMS_CLOUD.DELETE_FILE procedure removes the credentials file from the Autonomous Data Warehouse database.
E. The DBMS_CLOUD.CREATE_EXTERNAL_TABLE procedure creates an external table on files in the cloud. You can run queries on external data from the Autonomous Data Warehouse.
Answer: BDE

5.Which of these database features is NOT part of the Autonomous Database?
A. Online Indexing
B. Flashback Database
C. Real Application Clusters (RAC)
D. Java in the Database
Answer: D

6.Which two statements are true with regards to Oracle Data Sync? (Choose two.)
A. Data Sync can connect to any jdbc compatible source like MongoDB, RedShift and Sybase.
B. Data Sync can use a normal OCI (thick) client connection to connect to an Oracle database.
C. Data Sync can load your data in parallel in order to speed up the loading process.
D. Data Sync has default drivers available that supported loading data from DB2, Microsoft SQL Server, MySQL and Teradata.
Answer: AC

PSM II Exam Questions - Professional Scrum Master II

Want to pass PSM II Professional Scrum Master II Exam? Using PassQuestion PSM II Exam Questions can help you pass the Professional Scrum Master II exam easily. If you are the first time to participate in Scrum PSM II exam, selecting PassQuestion PSM II Exam Questions will increase your confidence of passing the exam and will effectively help you pass the PSM II exam.

PSM II Exam Overview - Professional Scrum Master II

The Professional Scrum Master level II (PSM II) assessment is available to anyone who wishes to demonstrate his or her ability to apply the Scrum framework to solving advanced, complex problems in the real world. Those that pass the assessment will receive the industry recognized PSM II Certification as an indication of their advanced knowledge and abilities pertaining to Scrum and the role of the Scrum Master.

Professional Scrum Master II Exam Details

Fee: $250 USD
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 30 (partial credit provide on some questions)
Difficulty: Advanced
Format:  Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Language: English only

PSM II Professional Scrum Master II Exam Subject Areas

Scrum Framework
Scrum Theory and Principles
Teams
Coaching and Facilitation
Done and Undone 
Maximizing Value 
Product Backlog Management
Scaling Fundamentals

The Difference Between PSM I And PSM II Exams

PSM I is perfect for people who want to understand the basics of Scrum thoroughly. The training and study required prior to the assessment make sure that you are comfortable using internationally recognized terminology for Scrum approaches.

PSM II is the next step for people who want to take it further. It goes beyond being able to evidence that you understand Scrum, and shows that you can use it in the workplace.

PSM I is a prerequisite for taking the PSM II assessment. The second Professional Scrum Master level builds on what is assessed at Level 1, so you need to have successfully taken and passed the PSM I assessment before moving on to the PSM II exam.

View Professional Scrum Master II PSM II Free Questions

1.A Scrum Master is not only a servant-leader to the Scrum Team and organization, it's also considered a management position.
Which three activities describe what a Scrum Master manages as reflected by the Scrum Guide? (Choose three.)
A. Reporting on the performance of the Sprint.
B. The way Scrum is understood and enacted within the organization.
C. Managing the capacity and utilization of each Development Team member.
D. Managing the process in which Scrum is applied.
E. Managing the Product Backlog items and work in the Sprint Backlog.
F. Removing organizational impediments that limits the team’s progress and productivity.
Answer: BDF

2.An organization has just hired you as a new Scrum Master to help them transition their teams from their current traditional process to Scrum. The teams are currently structured to specialize in a single function. This is also known as component teams where a team would only address a single layer (i.e. design, frontend, backend, database, testing, etc.). You've introduced the concept of cross-functional teams where all the skills needed to produce business functionality, from end to end, are inside of a single team.
What should you keep in mind when transitioning from siloed teams to cross-functional teams? (Choose two.)
A. It is easier to compare the performance between cross-functional teams in order to identify to which teams to assign tasks and which teams need additional coaching.
B. Newly formed teams will need time to stabilize before reaching their peak performance. During the initial stages of forming, performance will suffer and productivity may be low, although even then delivery of business value is still likely to increase.
C. Without feature teams, you cannot do Scrum. Postpone Scrum adoption until the teams are reorganized in feature teams.
D. People from the different layers and components will need time to become accustomed to working and delivering unified functionality together as one Scrum Team thus productivity may suffer.
Answer: BD

3.Paul is a Product Owner for multiple products. Each product is allocated a dedicated Scrum Team and a set budget. Based on the average velocity of a previous product release, Paul had estimated a new product to take 9 Sprints to complete. The average velocity of the previous product release was 50 completed units of work per Sprint. Over the first 3 Sprints, the Development Team reported an average velocity of 40 completed units per Sprint, while not fully completing the required integration tests. The Development Team estimates that integration testing would require additional effort to make the increments shippable. The Development Team is unsure if the required velocity is achievable.
What is the most effective way to recover?
A. In the next Sprints, the Development Team strives to make the selected work as close to ‘done’ as possible and at the minimum 90% completed. Any undone work is divided into new Product Backlog Items that will be deferred to the last Sprint in order to maintain stable velocity.
B. The Development Team informs Paul that the progress he has perceived to date is not correct. The Increment is not releasable. They give Paul their estimate of the effort it would take to get the previous work ‘done’, and suggest doing that work first before proceeding with new features. The team also re estimates the effort to make the remaining Product Backlog items ‘done’, including all integration effort. In the end, it is Paul’s call to continue the project or to cancel.
C. The Scrum Master will manage the Sprint Backlog and assign work to the Development Team members to ensure maximum utilization of each member. He/she will keep track of unused resources so that it does not impact the budget. Unused budget can be allocated for additional Sprints if needed.
D. The Scrum Master sets the open work aside to be performed in one or more release Sprints. They remind Paul to find funding for enough Release Sprints in which this remaining work can be done. Up to one release Sprint per three development Sprints may be required. It is Paul’s role to inform users and stakeholders of the impact on the release date.
Answer: B

4.Paul, a Product Owner of one of the Scrum Teams, has been attending the Daily Scrum. During the Daily Scrum, the Development Team members have been reporting their daily work to Paul so that he is aware of their Sprint progress and what each member is working on.
What is the best action for the Scrum Master to take?
A. Ask Paul to stop attending the Daily Scrum.
B. Coach Paul and Development Team members on the purpose of the Scrum events and let them figure out what to do in this situation.
C. Allow the Paul to participate in the Daily Scrum as he is responsible for the success of the product.
D. Facilitate the Daily Scrums to avoid any conflicts between the Development Team members and Paul.
Answer: B

5.Steven, the Scrum Master, is approached by one of the Development Team members saying that they are not completing regression tests for all of the work they are performing to the level defined in the Definition of Done. They have discussed this with the Product Owner and decided to remove regression testing from the Definition of Done.
Which two actions are the most appropriate for Steven to take? (Choose two.)
A. Reject the decision as the long term maintainability of the product will be negatively impacted by modifying the Definition of Done.
B. Accept the decision as a mutual agreement has been made between the Development Team and the Product Owner.
C. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner what problem they are trying to solve by altering the Definition of Done and removing regression testing from it. In what ways will this decision impact transparency and quality?
D. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner if they are still able to produce potentially shippable product increments by altering the Definition of Done?
Answer: CD

AZ-220 Exam Questions - Microsoft Azure IoT Developer

Microsoft AZ-220 exam is a new exam of Microsoft Azure IoT Developer, if you passed this exam, you will be eligible for the Microsoft Certified: Azure IoT Developer Specialty certification.PassQuestion Microsoft AZ-220 Exam Questions will help you prepare for your AZ-220 exam. It covers the exam objectives and topics you will be tested on. PassQuestion Microsoft AZ-220 testing engine simulates the actual exam experience which can help you pass your AZ-220 exam successfully.

Microsoft Azure IoT Developer AZ-220 Exam Information

This Microsoft Certified Azure IoT Developer AZ-220 will provide you with the skills and knowledge required to successfully create and maintain the cloud and edge portions of an Azure IoT solution. It includes full coverage of the core Azure IoT services such as IoT Hub, Device Provisioning Services, Azure Stream Analytics, Time Series Insights, and more. In addition to the focus on Azure PaaS services, it also includes sections on IoT Edge, device management, monitoring and troubleshooting, security concerns, and Azure IoT Central. 

The Azure IoT Developer is responsible for the implementation and the coding required to create and maintain the cloud and edge portion of an IoT solution. In addition to configuring and maintaining the devices by using cloud services, the IoT Developer also sets up the physical devices. The IoT Developer is responsible for maintaining the devices throughout the life cycle.

AZ-220 Exam Skill Measured - Microsoft Azure IoT Developer

Implement the IoT solution infrastructure (15-20%)
Provision and manage devices (20-25%)
Implement Edge (15-20%)
Process and manage data (15-20%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)
Implement security (15-20%)

View Microsoft Certified: Azure IoT Developer Specialty AZ-220 Free Questions

1. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the Device Provisioning Service, you disable the enrollment group, and you disable device entries in the identity registry of the IoT hub to which the IoT devices are provisioned.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

2.Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: You delete the enrollment group from the Device Provisioning Service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

3.You plan to deploy a standard tier Azure IoT hub.
You need to perform an over-the-air (OTA) update on devices that will connect to the IoT hub by using scheduled jobs.
What should you use?
A. a device-to-cloud message
B. the device twin reported properties
C. a cloud-to-device message
D. a direct method
Answer: D

4.You have an IoT device that gathers data in a CSV file named Sensors.csv. You deploy an Azure IoT hub that is accessible at ContosoHub.azure-devices.net. You need to ensure that Sensors.csv is uploaded to the IoT hub.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Upload Sensors.csv by using the IoT Hub REST API.
B. From the Azure subscription, select the IoT hub, select Message routing, and then configure a route to storage.
C. From the Azure subscription, select the IoT hub, select File upload, and then configure a storage container.
D. Configure the device to use a GET request to ContosoHub.azure-devices.net/devices/ContosoDevice1/ files/notifications.
Answer: AC

5.You plan to deploy an Azure IoT hub.
The IoT hub must support the following:
- Three Azure IoT Edge devices
- 2,500 IoT devices
Each IoT device will spend a 6 KB message every five seconds.
You need to size the IoT hub to support the devices. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you choose?
A. one unit of the S1 tier
B. one unit of the B2 tier
C. one unit of the B1 tier
D. one unit of the S3 tier
Answer: D

Cisco 350-801 CLCOR Exam Questions

Preparing for 350-801 Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies(CLCOR) Exam? PassQuestion provides you not only with the best Cisco 350-801 CLCOR Exam Questions and also with excellent service.PassQuestion provides a clear and superior solutions for each candidates.Through Cisco 350-801 CLCOR Exam Questions provided by PassQuestion, we can ensure you have a successful challenge when you are the first time to participate in the CCNP Collaboration certification 350-801 exam.

350-801 CLCOR Exam Overview - New CCNP Collaboration Certification Core Exam

Achieving CCNP Collaboration certification proves your skills with collaboration solutions. To earn CCNP Collaboration certification, you pass two exams: one that covers core collaboration technologies and one collaboration concentration exam of your choice, so you can customize your certification to your technical area of focus.

The Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies v1.0 (CLCOR 350-801) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Collaboration, CCIE Collaboration, and Cisco Certified Specialist - Collaboration Core certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing core collaboration technologies including infrastructure and design, protocols, codecs, and endpoints, Cisco IOS XE gateway and media resources, Call Control, QoS, and collaboration applications.

350-801 CLCOR Exam Topics Covered In CCNP Collaboration 350-801 Real Test

This exam tests your knowledge of implementing core collaboration technologies, including:
Infrastructure and design
Protocols, codecs, and endpoints
Cisco IOS XE gateway and media resources
Call Control
QoS
Collaboration applications

View Online Cisco CCNP Collaboration Core Exam 350-801 CLCOR Free Questions

1.Which action is required if an engineer wants to have Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration for an MGCP gateway?
A. Upload the custom configuration in the TFTP server in cisco Unified CM.
B. Configure the Cisco Unified CM's IP in voice service VoIP.
C. Apply the ccm-manager configuration commands to the gateway.
D. From Cisco Unified CM >Device > Gateway > Add gateway, check the auto-configuration check box.
Answer: C

2.Which two functionalities does Cisco Expressway provide in the Cisco collaboration architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Survivable Remote site Telephony functionality
B. Secure firewall and NAT traversal for mobile or remote Cisco Jabber and TelePresence video endpoints
C. Customer interaction management services
D. Secure business-to-business communications
E. MGCP gateway registration
Answer: BD

3.Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?
A. Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer
B. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
C. H.225 Block Setup destination
D. Enterprise Feature Access code for conference
Answer: B

4.How many DNS SRV entries can be defined in the SIP trunk destination address field in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

5.Which description of the function of call handlers in Cisco Unity Connection is true?
A. They control outgoing calls by allowing you to specify the numbers that Cisco Unity Connection can dial to transfer calls, notify users of massages, and delivery faxes.
B. They collect information from callers by playing a series of questions and recording the answers.
C. They answer calls, take message, and provide menus of options.
D. They provide access to a corporate directory by playing an audio list that users and outside callers users and leave messages.
Answer: C

6.Refer to the exhibit.

Endpoint A calls endpoint B.
What is the only audio codec that can be used for the call?
A. G277/8000
B. PCMA/8000
C. Telephone-event/8000
D. G7221/16000
Answer: A

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Dumps

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner is the newest basic level certification exam provided by Amazon Web Services. PassQuestion provides you the latest AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Dumps which contain actual exam structure and contents for your exam preparation. The information of PassQuestion can ensure you pass your exam in the first time to participate in the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner exam.

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Overview

The AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner (CLF-C01) examination is intended for individuals who have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to demonstrate basic knowledge of the AWS platform, including: available services and their common use cases, AWS Cloud architectural principles (at the conceptual level), account security, and compliance. The exam can be taken at a testing center or from the comfort and convenience of a home or office location as an online proctored exam.Also, this AWS CCP certification acts as a prerequisite alternative for Advanced Networking and Big Data Certification exams.

It validates an examinee's ability to:

• Explain the value of the AWS Cloud.
• Understand and explain the AWS shared responsibility model.
• Understand AWS Cloud security best practices.
• Understand AWS Cloud costs, economics, and billing practices.
• Describe and position the core AWS services, including compute, network, databases, and storage.
• Identify AWS services for common use cases.

Recommended Knowledge and Experience

Candidates have at least six months of experience with the AWS Cloud in any role, including technical, managerial, sales, purchasing, or financial
Candidates should have a basic understanding of IT services and their uses in the AWS Cloud platform

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Certification Content Outline

View Online AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Free Questions

1.Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is the customer responsible for?
A. Ensuring that disk drives are wiped after use.
B. Ensuring that firmware is updated on hardware devices.
C. Ensuring that data is encrypted at rest.
D. Ensuring that network cables are category six or higher.
Answer: C

2.The use of what AWS feature or service allows companies to track and categorize spending on a detailed level?
A. Cost allocation tags
B. Consolidated billing
C. AWS Budgets
D. AWS Marketplace
Answer: C

3.Which service stores objects, provides real-time access to those objects, and offers versioning and lifecycle capabilities?
A. Amazon Glacier
B. AWS Storage Gateway
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon EBS
Answer: C

4.What AWS team assists customers with accelerating cloud adoption through paid engagements in any of several specialty practice areas?
A. AWS Enterprise Support
B. AWS Solutions Architects
C. AWS Professional Services
D. AWS Account Managers
Answer: C

5.A customer would like to design and build a new workload on AWS Cloud but does not have the AWS-related software technical expertise in-house.
Which of the following AWS programs can a customer take advantage of to achieve that outcome?
A. AWS Partner Network Technology Partners
B. AWS Marketplace
C. AWS Partner Network Consulting Partners
D. AWS Service Catalog
Answer: C

6.Distributing workloads across multiple Availability Zones supports which cloud architecture design principle?
A. Implement automation.
B. Design for agility.
C. Design for failure.
D. Implement elasticity.
Answer: C

MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam Questions

Want to pass MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam? PassQuestions new updated MCPA-Level 1 MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam Questions which include the latest and most accurate information about MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 exam.It ensure you have a good preparation for your exam and help you pass your MCPA-Level 1 certification exam successfully in your first attempt.

What Is MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1?

The MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 exam validates that an architect has the required knowledge and skills to direct the emergence of an effective application network out of individual integration solutions following API-led connectivity across an organization using Anypoint Platform. S/he should be able to:

• Optimize and shape the Anypoint Platform deployment in the specific organizational context, working with business, infrastructure, InfoSec, and other teams.
• Define how Anypoint Platform is used in conjunction with other tools and applications in the organization.
• Define the usage of Anypoint Platform and the corresponding organizational and process changes needed to help the Platform be sustainable.
• Provide guidance and drive creation of standards, reusable assets, and automation required for scale and multi-LOB adoption.

MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam Overview

Format: Multiple-choice, closed book, proctored online or in a testing center
Length: 58 questions
Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours)
Pass score: 70%
Language: English
Cost: $375
The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each attempt.

MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Exam Topics

The exam validates that the candidate can perform the following tasks.

View Online MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1 Free Questions

1.What API policy would LEAST likely be applied to a Process API?
A. Custom circuit breaker
B. Client ID enforcement
C. Rate limiting
D. JSON threat protection
Answer: A

2.What is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the success of a typical C4E that is immediately apparent in responses from the Anypoint Platform APIs?
A. The number of production outage incidents reported in the last 24 hours
B. The number of API implementations that have a publicly accessible HTTP endpoint and are being managed by Anypoint Platform
C. The fraction of API implementations deployed manually relative to those deployed using a CI/CD tool
D. The number of API specifications in RAML or OAS format published to Anypoint Exchange
Answer: B

3.An organization is implementing a Quote of the Day API that caches today's quote.
What scenario can use the CloudHub Object Store via the Object Store connector to persist the cache's state?
A. When there are three CloudHub deployments of the API implementation to three separate CloudHub regions that must share the cache state.
B. When there are two CloudHub deployments of the API implementation by two Anypoint Platform business groups to the same CloudHub region that must share the cache state.
C. When there is one deployment of the API implementation to CloudHub and another deployment to a customer-hosted Mule runtime that must share the cache state.
D. When there is one CloudHub deployment of the API implementation to three CloudHub workers that must share the cache state.
Answer: C

4.What condition requires using a CloudHub Dedicated Load Balancer?
A. When cross-region load balancing is required between separate deployments of the same Mule application
B. When custom DNS names are required for API implementations deployed to customer-hosted Mule runtimes
C. When API invocations across multiple CloudHub workers must be load balanced
D. When server-side load-balanced TLS mutual authentication is required between API implementations and API clients
Answer: B

5.What do the API invocation metrics provided by Anypoint Platform provide?
A. ROI metrics from APIs that can be directly shared with business users
B. Measurements of the effectiveness of the application network based on the level of reuse
C. Data on past API invocations to help identify anomalies and usage patterns across various APIs
D. Proactive identification of likely future policy violations that exceed a given threat threshold
Answer: C

6.What is true about the technology architecture of Anypoint VPCs?
A. The private IP address range of an Anypoint VPC is automatically chosen by CloudHub.
B. Traffic between Mule applications deployed to an Anypoint VPC and on-premises systems can stay within a private network.
C. Each CloudHub environment requires a separate Anypoint VPC.
D. VPC peering can be used to link the underlying AWS VPC to an on-premises (non AWS) private network.
Answer: B

HPE ATP HPE0-V14 Dumps

HPE0-V14 Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions exam is available at PassQuestion. PassQuestion provides you the highest quality HPE ATP HPE0-V14 Dumps which will help you pass your exam successfully. PassQuestion will also help you well consolidate the related IT professional knowledge to let you have a good preparation for your first time to participate in HPE ATP - Hybrid IT Solutions V2 HPE0-V14 Exam.

HPE0-V14 Exam Description - Building HPE Hybrid IT Solutions

This ATP certification validates a successful candidate has foundational knowledge and skills of the HPE infrastructure strategy, encompassing SMB server, storage, networking, and management tools and their underlying architecture technologies. Given a set of customer requirements and a solution design, implement the solution.

Ideal Candidate For This Exam

The ideal candidate has a minimum of twelve months hands-on experience or equivalent in at least one of the core HPE areas (Server, Storage, and Networking) and six months experience or equivalent in other HPE SMB solutions and foundational technologies.

The candidate assists with the design and participates in the demonstration/proof of concept, integration, and administration aspects of foundational HPE solutions.

HPE ATP - Hybrid IT Solutions V2 HPE0-V14 Exam Topics

View HPE0-V14 Free Questions From PassQuestion HPE ATP HPE0-V14 Dumps

1.A security client needs a surveillance solution to support 239 Cameras. They expect to generate 2PB of data and require a 10Gb network infrastructure in a single rack.
Which solution should you recommend to meet the customer requirements?
A. HPE Moonshot
B. HPE MSA
C. HPE Apollo Servers
D. HPE SimplVity 380
Answer: C

2.Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has been using VEEAM and the HPE StoreOnce 3620 shown in the exhibit to backup their environment. The customer’s legal team has asked to double their retention times for all backup sets, and they are starting to run out of space on the StoreOnce.
Which options could you recommend that the customer add to their existing configuration to accommodate the new requirement? (Select two. Each option represents a separate solution.)
A. HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank Storage
B. HPE StoreOnce 3620 24TB Capacity Upgrade Kit
C. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 16Gb Fibre Channel Network Card
D. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 10/25Gb SFP Network card
E. HPE D3710 Storage Enclosure
Answer: BD

3.A customer needs NFS access on a fiber channel array.
What must be included in the solution to meet this requirement?
A. StoreEver
B. Storage File Controller
C. Smart Array Controller 
D. StoreOnce RMC
Answer: B

4.What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?
A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)
B. Twin-Ax
C. Single Mode Fiber
D. Multi-mode Fiber
Answer: C

5.When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?
A. To manage multiple servers
B. To monitor their services
C. To enable the Advanced iLO license
D. To update firmware
Answer: B

6.You are creating a configuration for a new Nimble HF40 array.
Which tool should you use to ensure that you include adequate cache in the configuration?
A. HPE NinjaSTARS
B. HPE Storage Sizer
C. HPE OneView
D. HPE SPOCK
Answer: A

HPE0-J57 Exam Dumps - Designing HPE Storage Solutions

HPE0-J57 Designing HPE Storage Solutions exam is a hot HPE ASE test,PassQuestion HPE0-J57 Exam Dumps are prepared for people who participate in the HPE0-J57 exam. PassQuestion HPE0-J57 Exam Dumps include not only exam topics which can consolidate your expertise, but also high degree of accuracy of practice questions and answers about HPE ASE certification HPE0-J57 exam.PassQuestion can guarantee you pass the HP HPE0-J57 exam with high score.

HPE0-J57 Exam Description - Designing HPE Storage Solutions

This exam tests your expert ability to:
• Explain the fundamental architectures and technologies of HPE Storage Solutions
• Identify customer requirements and design, validate and propose an HPE Storage Solution including back-up, recovery and archiving (BURA)
• Manage, administer and optimize HPE Storage Solutions

Ideal Candidate For This HPE0-J57 Exam

The ideal candidate demonstrates the skills typically acquired with one to two years of experience in storage technologies, has completed the HPE recommended ASE curriculum or has equivalent experience, can assess business requirements and then develop a storage solution that manages, protects, and optimizes data for enterprise workloads.

HPE ASE HPE0-J57 Exam Objectives

View Online HPE0-J57 Free Questions From PassQuestion HPE0-J57 Exam Dumps

1.Which functionality available in an HPE 3 Par StoreServ 8400 system that is not available in an HPE 3par Storesrve 7200
A. Data at Rest Encryption
B. Persistent Checksum end-to-end data integrity (correct)
C. Adaptive optimization and dynamic Optimization
D. Online import license
Answer: B

2.Which storage principle would benefits of customer who has several departments in their organization with different storage needs?
A. Autonomic Management
B. Federated storage
C. Scale out storage
D. Multi-tenancy
Answer: D

3.A customer with restricted budget has an existing HPE 3PAR store server 8200 using 10kfast class and near line drives because of the implementation of new application. the workload has shifted to be read intensive therefore, they want to increase the read I/O performance
What should they add to their environment?
A. A tier with 15k fast class 600 GB drive for new CPG, configure AO policy to advantage of new resources
B. Two 400 GB SSD drives and enable adaptive flash cache (page 173) eed to check
C. A tier with 15k fast class drive and implement thin provisioned deduplicated virtual volumes
D. A tier of SSD and implement thin provisioned virtual volume
Answer: B

4.Which management interface uses four basic commands (Create, read, update ad delete) to enable administrators to define ad radically simply management processes?
A. Rest API
B. WMI
C. SMI-S
D. WEBEM
Answer: A

5.What can move data directly from a snapshot to backup storage independent of backup server software?
A. SSMC
B. Virtual Lock
C. CLI
D. Express Protect
Answer: D

6.What is the benefits of HPE synergy (Select 2)
A. It can present block storage services from HPE 3par as part of the resource pool
B. It support up to 3 HPE store Virtual VSA nodes for storage RAID
C. It can use HPE 3PAR file persona for objet storage
D. It can compose and reclaim DAS storage
E. It support HPE blade system C-Class Flex Fabrics Interconnect module (need to check)
Answer: A,D

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals MB-901 Exam Questions

MB-901 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta) Exam is new available, Passquestion provides you the latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals MB-901 Exam Questions, which have a very close similarity with real exam. Passquestion can promise that you can 100% pass your exam to attend Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Certification MB-901 exam. 

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta) MB-901 Exam Overview

MB-901 exam will cover the positioning and benefits of adopting Dynamics 365.Candidates should have a functional understanding of Dynamics 365 capabilities and Microsoft cloud computing.Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. Candidates should also have a basic understanding of business scenarios and experience in addressing business, legal, and security requirements for IT projects.

What Topics Are Covered In Microsoft MB-901 Exam?

Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%)
Understand AI and mixed reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%)
Understand model-driven apps (25-30%)
Understand Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)

View Online MB-901 Free Questions Chosen From PassQuestion Complete MB-901 Real Exam Questions

1.You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service. Company executives need to decide whether to put the data on-premises or in the cloud. You need to explain the data security benefits of the cloud.
What should you communicate to the executives?
A. Active Directory keeps data secure.
B. Data is in a government cloud.
C. Data on-premises is encrypted by default.
D. Data online is encrypted by default.
Answer: D

2.A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online.
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created in Dynamics 365 Sales.
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Tasks
B. Appointments
C. Phone calls
D. Accounts
E. Contacts
Answer: ABE

3.A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities.
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports.
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

4.There are complex services being used with your Dynamics 365 instance in which you own and manage the software applications as well as the data hosted in Azure. You need to determine which type of cloud service model is being used by your organization.
Which cloud service model is being used?
A. platform as a service (PaaS)
B. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
C. software as a service (SaaS)
Answer: A

5.You are discussing the benefits of hosting a Dynamics 365 development sandbox on Microsoft Azure.
What are two benefits? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. ability to adhere to static cost requirements
B. a higher level of system availability in the event of a disaster
C. ability to easily scale for increased growth
D. physical control over server hardware
Answer: BC

6.A medical clinic uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The clinic wants to rapidly implement a solution that optimizes coordination of care for patients.
You need to recommend a solution for the clinic.
What should you recommend?
A. Canvas app
B. Portal
C. Healthcare Accelerator
D. Insights
Answer: C

7.A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management.
The company hires seasonal workers during peak summer months. The workers must quickly learn to operate manufacturing machinery.
You need to streamline training for the workers and provide a consistent and standardized way to perform tasks.
What should you recommend?
A. Remote Assist
B. Guides
C. Layout
Answer: A